I find this to be one of the most cogent explanation of situation unfolding in India. Why certain and large section of population remained unexposed in first wave and thus susceptible is unanswered. The fading of first wave is puzzling. About sero-prevalance, will antibodies be present even when received quantity of virus was very low? Is it possible that much of the population received virus strain of first wave but in varying proportion? Thus the susceptible are those whose virus encounter was too brief. The other explanation would be post-national lockdown mobility (from 1 June 20) was such that it created pockets of susceptible population, but it seems far fetched considering (casual empiricism) level of activity during year end (Nov and Dec). In any case, difference in properties of virus strains should be focus of explanation, as you have. Thank you.
I find this to be one of the most cogent explanation of situation unfolding in India. Why certain and large section of population remained unexposed in first wave and thus susceptible is unanswered. The fading of first wave is puzzling. About sero-prevalance, will antibodies be present even when received quantity of virus was very low? Is it possible that much of the population received virus strain of first wave but in varying proportion? Thus the susceptible are those whose virus encounter was too brief. The other explanation would be post-national lockdown mobility (from 1 June 20) was such that it created pockets of susceptible population, but it seems far fetched considering (casual empiricism) level of activity during year end (Nov and Dec). In any case, difference in properties of virus strains should be focus of explanation, as you have. Thank you.